We need to stop the discussion right there and nail this down. Too often conservatives allow liberals to use the generalities of "fair share" lightly and without reason. It is time to call them to the mat and nail down a common understanding of what they mean by "fair share". How would they measure "fair". Put some factual perspective to the argument:
Based on the latest publicly available tax return data that I could readily find (2009):
(Bottom income in bracket)
|Group's Share of Total AGI*||Group's Share of Income Taxes|
The top 5% and top 10% pay a share 27% or higher in income taxes than their share of the total AGI. Is this a measure of fairness? Can someone suggest another way to measure "fairness"? The democrats seem insistent on making the "wealthy" pay their "fair share". The numbers thrown about seem to indicate that the "wealthy" can be described as those earning over $250,000 per year. We'll assume this means an AGI of $250,000 which puts this somewhere around the top 2 or 3% of federal taxpayers. They already pay about double what their share of the total AGI is for the country.
Let's stop allowing such grossly generic and misleading terms to go unchallenged. Those advocating for "fair share" payments have the onus upon them to define what they mean by "fair share" in some measurable way such that the rest of the country can really digest what they are championing.